Is this sentence grammatically correct:?!
Question: "She has abused of drugs"
(Does it even make sense?)
Answers: "She has abused of drugs"
(Does it even make sense?)
Nope. It's, "She IS abused of drugs(archaic english) or ,"She has abused drugs."
uhm;;makes no sence.?
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No...I think you should remove the 'of.'
No it doesnt make sense.
Well at least i dont think it makes sense...
She abused the drugs... i dunno.. lol.
It is a sentence fragment and the verb usage is wrong with "abused" unless there is more to the sentence suggesting that it should be in past tense. The only way to make this sentence correct is to either add more details or say that "In the past she has abused drugs."
No it doesn't.
It should read:
She has abused drugs.